2nd Semester Exam Review
 Name:    2nd Semester Exam Review

Multiple Choice
Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1.

Which of the following is an example of a balanced force?
 a. a baby pushed in a stroller on a sidewalk b. a child running down a path c. a car traveling on a highway d. a porch swing hanging from the porch roof

2.

Which of the following are two factors that determine speed?
 a. acceleration and time c. distance and time b. velocity and time d. motion and time

3.

Which of the following best represents acceleration as presented on a graph?
 a. motion change vs. time c. speed change vs. time b. distance change vs. time d. velocity change vs. time

4.

When the net forces equal 0 N, they are which of the following?
 a. balanced c. a push b. unbalanced d. a pull

5.

Which of the following causes an object to start moving?
 a. balanced forces c. either balanced or unbalanced forces b. unbalanced forces d. any combination of forces

6.

What is a force that opposes motion between two surfaces that are in contact?
 a. friction c. velocity b. motion d. acceleration

7.

In which of the following activities is friction harmful?
 a. brakes stopping a car c. an eraser erasing b. a person walking d. car engine parts wearing out

8.

Which is NOT a way to reduce friction?
 a. using ball bearings c. pouring sand on ice b. sanding with paper d. lubricating with oil

9.

Which of the following does NOT describe mass?
 a. remains constant c. is a measure of gravitational force b. is a measure of matter d. is measured in kilograms

10.

Which of the following does NOT describe weight?
 a. changes as gravitational force changes c. is a measure of gravitational force b. is constant d. can be measured in newtons

11.

To calculate an object’s acceleration, you need to know
 a. distance traveled and speed. b. starting point, endpoint, and the object’s mass. c. starting velocity, final velocity, and time it takes to change velocity. d. average speed and distance.

12.

A hiker’s velocity begins at 1.8 m/s uphill and changes to 1.5 m/s uphill. How do you know that the hiker has a negative acceleration?
 a. His direction changed. c. His speed increased. b. His direction was unchanged. d. His speed decreased.

13.

A student has a weight of 420 N on Earth. What is the student’s weight on the moon. (Moon’s gravity = 1/6 of Earth’s gravity).
 a. 70 N c. 70 kg b. 2520 N d. 2520 kg

14.

An unbalanced force can cause an object’s motion to change by
 a. changing direction or speed; starting but not stopping motion b. changing direction or speed, starting or stopping motion. c. changing direction or speed; stopping but not starting motion d. changing direction or speed only.

15.

Two forces act on an object. One force has a magnitude of 10 N and is directed toward the north. The other has a magnitude of 5 N directed toward the south. The object experiences a net force of
 a. 5 N south. c. 50 N north. b. 15 N north. d. 5 N north.

16.

What is the SI unit for speed?
 a. kilogram c. m/s b. newton d. m/s/s

17.

If a baseball and a cannonball are dropped from the same height at the same time, which ball will hit the ground first?
 a. the cannonball c. The balls land at the same time. b. the baseball d. the ball with the larger volume

18.

Which is a common unbalanced force acting on objects in motion?
 a. inertia c. friction b. acceleration d. speed

19.

If a moving boxcar gently collides with a boxcar at rest and the two boxcars move together, their combined momentum will be
 a. greater than the original momentum of the moving boxcar. b. equal to the original momentum of the moving boxcar. c. less than the original momentum of the moving boxcar. d. zero.

20.

Which of the following is NOT an example of projectile motion?
 a. the path of a leaping frog b. the path of an arrow through the air c. the path of a crate sliding along flat ground d. the path of a pitched baseball

21.

If a tennis ball, a solid rubber ball, and a solid steel ball were dropped at the same time from the same height, which would hit the ground first? (Assume there is no air resistance.)
 a. All would hit at the same time. b. The solid rubber ball would hit first. c. The solid steel ball would hit first. d. The tennis ball would hit first.

22.

Which of the following objects has the least acceleration?
 a. an empty shopping cart pushed with a hard force b. a full shopping cart pushed with a hard force c. an empty shopping cart pushed with a light force d. a full shopping cart pushed with a light force

23.

A cue ball rolls toward a billiard ball with a velocity of 1.0 m/s east. Both balls have identical masses. What happens to the total momentum after the two balls collide?
 a. It is greater than the original momentum of the cue ball. b. It is equal to the momentum before the collision. c. It is less than the original momentum of the cueball. d. It is equal to zero.

24.

A spacecraft orbiting Earth is both moving forward and
 a. at terminal velocity. c. experiencing resistance. b. in free fall. d. weightless.

25.

Newton’s first law of motion states that a moving object, unless it is acted on by an unbalanced force, will
 a. remain in motion. c. change its momentum. b. eventually come to a stop. d. accelerate.

26.

A book weighs 6.0 N. If the acceleration of gravity is 9.8 m/s2, what is the mass of the book in kilograms?
 a. 6.1 kg c. 1.6 kg b. 59 kg d. 0.61 kg

27.

Which cart will accelerate the least?
 a. an empty cart pushed with a hard force b. a full cart pushed with a hard force c. an empty cart pushed with a light force d. a full cart pushed with a light force

28.

What is true when all objects collide?
 a. The velocity of each object does not change. b. The objects always stick together. c. The objects always bounce off each other. d. The total momentum does not change.

29.

A pitched baseball gets its horizontal motion from
 a. the force of gravity. c. air resistance. b. the force of the hand throwing it. d. projectile motion.

30.

What is the SI unit for pressure?
 a. drag c. pascal b. bernoulli d. archimedes

31.

What does NOT affect an airplane’s lift?
 a. turbulence c. wing size b. air quality d. speed

32.

Why do air bubbles in water rise to the surface?
 a. Liquids cannot be compressed very much. b. Water is about 1,000 times denser than air. c. Pressure is the amount of force exerted on a given area. d. The weight of the atmosphere pushes down on the water.

33.

Because fluid pressure is exerted evenly in all directions
 a. some objects float. c. bubbles are round. b. birds and airplanes can fly. d. objects seem to weigh less in water.

34.

Which of the following does NOT affect the amount of lift on an airplane’s wing?
 a. turbulence c. wing surface area b. gravity d. the airplane’s speed

35.

If a fluid flows from area A to area B, then area B must be an area of lower
 a. temperature. c. volume. b. mass. d. pressure.

36.

Why would a pilot adjust a plane’s wing flaps?
 a. to reduce cabin pressure c. to reduce drag b. to increase drag d. to increase cabin pressure

37.

Why would a 1 cm3 piece of balsa wood be more buoyant than a 1 cm3 piece of oak?
 a. Balsa has more mass per unit volume. b. Oak is more dense. c. Balsa is stronger. d. Oak is less dense.

38.

What is the number of times the machine multiplies force?
 a. power c. mechanical efficiency b. output force d. mechanical advantage

39.

If a barbell weighs 160 N, what other information do you need to calculate how much work it takes to lift it?
 a. the shape of the weights b. how high the barbell is being lifted c. the strength of the person doing the lifting d. the amount of output force

40.

How does a ramp make lifting a heavy object easier?
 a. The object is moved over a shorter distance. b. The ramp increases the amount of work you do. c. Less force is needed to move the object over a longer distance. d. More force is needed to move the object over a longer distance.

41.

Where is the input force of a wheel and axle exerted?
 a. a circular distance c. an inclined plane b. a rectangular distance d. a spiral

42.

What two things must happen for work to be done?
 a. The object must move and there must be an output force. b. The object must move in the opposite direction of the force. c. The object must move in the same direction as the force. d. The object must move and the mechanical advantage must be greater than 1.

43.

What is the rate at which power is transferred?
 a. power c. work b. energy d. joule

44.

What is a machine with a grooved wheel that holds a cable?
 a. lever c. wheel and axle b. pulley d. wedge

45.

A doorknob is an example of a
 a. pulley c. lever b. wheel and axle d. screw

46.

Which type of energy makes a light bulb feel warm?
 a. light energy c. thermal energy b. electrical energy d. nuclear energy

47.

When a bat hits a baseball, what is transferred from the bat to the ball?
 a. work c. force b. energy d. electrical energy

48.

What happens when electrical energy is changed to thermal energy?
 a. An energy change takes place. c. An energy conversion takes place. b. A force change takes place. d. An electrical conversion takes place.

49.

When you eat fruits and vegetables, what type of energy are you taking in?
 a. thermal c. electrical b. sound d. chemical

50.

Any time an energy conversion takes place, some of the original energy is converted to which one of the following?
 a. sound c. light b. potential d. thermal

51.

Which of the following is not an energy resource?
 a. falling water c. the heat inside Earth b. plant matter d. an electric generator

52.

What is the ability to do work?
 a. movement c. power b. energy d. force

53.

What do you call the energy of motion?
 a. potential energy c. kinetic energy b. mechanical energy d. force energy

54.

Railroad tracks have gaps between the rails so that they will not buckle in hot weather because of
 a. thermal conductivity. c. thermal expansion. b. specific heat. d. thermal insulation.

55.

Which of the following is NOT a common state of matter?
 a. solid c. gas b. liquid d. superfluid

56.

In both hot-water and solar-heating systems, the thermal energy from heated water circulates through the air of a room by
 a. conduction. c. convection. b. ventilation. d. radiation.

57.

In which way does the operation of a refrigerator differ from that of a heat engine?
 a. A refrigerator uses heat to do work, while a heat engine does work to transfer energy by heat. b. A heat engine uses heat to do work, while a refrigerator does work to transfer energy by heat. c. A heat engine absorbs energy, while a refrigerator releases it. d. There is no difference in the operation of the two machines.

58.

The lowest possible temperature is
 a. 273 K. c. 0°C. b. 0°F. d. 0 K.

59.

Which value represents the greatest amount of energy?
 a. 1,000 cal c. 100 kcal b. 500 Cal d. 100,000 J

60.

Thermal pollution affects nearby bodies of water by dumping
 a. burning garbage. c. heated chemicals. b. radioactive materials. d. heated water.

61.

If two substances have the same temperature, then
 a. their particles have the same average kinetic energy. b. their particles will not react chemically. c. the substances have equal thermal energies. d. their specific heats are identical.

62.

In which state do particles move fastest and with little effect on each other?
 a. ice c. liquid b. gas d. solid

63.

Why do the condenser coils in back of a refrigerator feel warm?
 a. Warm air collects behind the refrigerator. b. Coils are always warm. c. Thermal energy is brought from the outside. d. Thermal energy is removed from inside.

64.

What happens when liquid in a thermometer undergoes thermal expansion?
 a. Its volume decreases. c. Its particles get colder. b. Its particles spread out. d. Its particles expand.

65.

An example of the thermal expansion of a solid is
 a. an expansion joint in a bridge. c. the mercury in a thermometer. b. a stretched rubber band. d. a balloon inflated by hot air.

66.

A heating system that relies on a building’s structural design and materials and sunlight for heating is called a(n)
 a. passive solar-heating system. c. hot-water heating system. b. active solar-heating system. d. warm-air heating system.

67.

Which is the most penetrating form of nuclear radiation?
 a. gamma rays c. alpha particles b. X rays d. beta particles

68.

Becquerel was shocked by his results when the photographic plate from the drawer was developed because
 a. he did not know you can get shocks from electricity. b. he did not expect the mineral to glow without a light. c. he did not know the energy came from uranium. d. he forgot he had put his material in the drawer.

69.

What name did Marie Curie give to the process where some nuclei give off nuclear radiation?

70.

What happens to an unstable nucleus during radioactive decay?
 a. The nucleus gives off particles and energy. b. The nucleus absorbs particles and energy. c. The nucleus gives off particles and light. d. The nucleus absorbs particles and X rays.

71.

Which of the following can only be stopped by lead or concrete?
 a. alpha particles c. positrons b. gamma rays d. beta particles

72.

A large nucleus splitting into two smaller nuclei gives off
 a. isotopes. c. energy. b. alpha particles. d. nuclear fission.

73.

When light shines on fluorescent materials, what happens?
 a. The materials explode. b. The materials break into particles. c. The materials glow. d. The materials give off gases.

74.

Which of the following can cause the most damage from inside a living thing?
 a. gamma rays c. beta particles b. alpha particles d. gamma particles

75.

What is the time it takes one-half of the nuclei of a radioactive isotope to decay called?
 a. half-life c. isotope life b. carbon-14 d. radioactivity

76.

What is an example of a controlled nuclear chain reaction?
 a. a nuclear power plant c. an atomic bomb b. a nuclear tracer d. an atomic bond

77.

What is a disadvantage of nuclear power plants over fossil fuel plants?
 a. they cost more to build c. the supply of uranium is unlimited b. they cost less to run d. they cost less to build

78.

Which event is most similar to a nuclear chain reaction?
 a. A river overflows its banks. b. An avalanche rolls down a mountain. c. A volcano erupts. d. A hurricane forms.

79.

What is the loss of static electricity as charges move off an object?
 a. static c. friction b. electric discharge d. induction

80.

What do you call materials with a resistance of 0 W?
 a. conductors c. resistors b. superconductors d. photocells

81.

What generates electrical energy from chemical energy?
 a. cell c. circuit b. switch d. current

82.

What is the third part of an electric circuit besides the wires and the load?
 a. force c. current b. voltage d. energy source

83.

What is a switch that automatically opens if the current is too high?
 a. fuse c. circuit breaker b. conductor d. insulator

84.

Which of these would lower the electrical resistance of a wire?
 a. making the wire thinner b. increasing the wire’s length c. lowering the temperature of the wire d. using denser material for the wire

85.

What does the amount of energy released per charge depend upon?
 a. voltage c. current b. resistance d. friction

86.

What strengthens a magnetic field made by a current-carrying wire?
 a. solenoid and electric current b. electromagnet and electric motor c. electromagnet and solenoid d. only an electromagnet

87.

A compass needle responds to a magnetic field, because the compass needle is a
 a. transformer. c. motor. b. generator. d. magnet.

88.

What is created when a magnet moves through a coil of wire?
 a. an electric current c. a solenoid b. an electromagnet d. a ferromagnet

89.

What did Faraday’s experiments with magnets and electromagnetic induction demonstrate?
 a. Strong electromagnets make electric current. b. Electric current is made when the magnetic field changes. c. Strong electric current makes electromagnets. d. Magnetic fields are made when the electric field changes.

90.

Which of the following is NOT true about an electromagnet?
 a. It can be strong enough to levitate a train. b. The current may be turned on or off. c. Its strength is reduced by adding more loops per meter. d. It consists of an iron core and a current-carrying wire.

91.

When domains of atoms line up, what do they create?
 a. an electric current c. an aurora b. a magnetic field d. a ferromagnet

92.

What do spinning electric charges generate?
 a. a magnetic force c. an electromagnet b. a ferromagnet d. an aurora

93.

Which statement is NOT true about semiconductors?
 a. Semiconductors conduct electric current better than insulators. b. Semiconductors have slowed the pace of technology. c. Semiconductors do not conduct electric current as well as conductors. d. Semiconductors are the backbone of most electronic devices.

94.

Which statement describes an integrated circuit?
 a. It has one transistor and many silicon chips. b. It operates at a very slow speed. c. It has helped reduce the size of electronic devices. d. It requires electric charges to travel long distances.

95.

Which of the following is NOT true about semiconductors?
 a. They conduct electric current better than insulators do. b. They only use silicon. c. They do not conduct electric current as well as conductors do. d. They are the backbone of most electronic devices.

96.

What job is done by circuit boards?
 a. They connect electronic devices. c. They change TV channels. b. They receive signals from a TV. d. They connect circuit parts.

97.

What kind of carriers are used to broadcast television audio and video signals?
 a. laser signals c. electromagnetic waves b. electron beams d. fluorescent waves

98.

When two objects, such as marimba bars and columns, vibrate at the same frequency, this occurs.
 a. refraction c. resonance b. reflection d. amplitude

99.

An echo is the result of a
 a. reflected sound wave. c. refracted sound wave. b. diffracted sound wave. d. dispersed sound wave.

100.

Which one of these wave types must have a medium?
 a. X-rays c. ocean waves b. visible light d. microwaves

101.

What is a reflected sound wave called?
 a. transmittal c. echo b. interaction d. return

102.

The amplitude of a sound’s waves determines the sound’s
 a. pitch. c. resonance. b. loudness. d. sound quality.

103.

The frequency of a sound wave determines
 a. the pitch of the sound. c. the sound quality. b. the loudness of the sound. d. the type of interference.

104.

For a sound wave to produce an echo, it must
 a. diffract around a small barrier. b. reflect off the surface of an object. c. have an ultrasonic frequency. d. have a very long wavelength.

105.

What does the amplitude of a sound’s waves affect?
 a. pitch c. resonance b. loudness d. sound quality

106.

What does the motion of the source of a sound cause?
 a. resonance c. the Doppler effect b. shock waves d. echolocation

107.

What does the medium through which sound waves travel affect?
 a. speed of the sound c. number of waves per second b. amplitude of the waves d. sound quality

108.

Which of the following represents the correct sequence of events?
 a. a drum vibrates; air particles near a drum are pushed closer together and then become less crowded; compressions and rarefactions travel away from a drum; hair cells in the cochlea bend; the hammer vibrates b. hair cells in the cochlea bend; the hammer vibrates; a drum vibrates; air particles near a drum are pushed closer together and then become less crowded; compressions and rarefactions travel away from a drum c. air particles near a drum are pushed closer together and then become less crowded; compressions and rarefactions travel away from a drum; a drum vibrates; hair cells in the cochlea bend; the hammer vibrates d. a drum vibrates; air particles near a drum are pushed closer together and then become less crowded; compressions and rarefactions travel away from the drum; the hammer vibrates; hair cells in the cochlea bend

109.

In which situation does a pilot have to travel the fastest in order to break the sound barrier?
 a. at 4000 m above sea level c. in outer space b. at 12,000 m above sea level d. at the edge of the shock wave

110.

Which of the following people is most likely to suffer from tinnitus?
 a. an elderly person c. a young child b. a former rock star d. a worker in a quiet office

111.

Which sound has the highest pitch?
 a. one with 156 Hz c. one with 14 dB b. one with 258 Hz d. one with 563 dB

112.

Which of the following could NOT be considered a percussion instrument?
 a. two sticks being knocked together b. a piece of grass held between the thumbs and blown on c. wind chimes blowing in the wind d. an oatmeal container filled with beans and shaken

113.

An electromagnetic wave
 a. never moves. b. can travel only through empty space. c. cannot travel through matter. d. can travel through empty space or matter.

114.

The electromagnetic spectrum is the entire range of
 a. colors of visible light. c. gamma rays and X rays. b. ultraviolet light. d. EM waves.

115.

When pigments are mixed the result is called
 a. color addition. c. color absorption. b. color subtraction. d. color scattering.

116.

An electromagnetic wave is a wave that
 a. can travel only through matter. b. can travel only through empty space. c. consists of changing electric and magnetic fields. d. is the same as sound waves and water waves.

117.

What kind of waves are used in radar for detecting the speed of a car?
 a. gamma rays c. infrared waves b. X rays d. microwaves

118.

What kind of waves can be used to treat some cancerous tumors?
 a. gamma rays c. infrared rays b. X rays d. microwaves

119.

Earth is 384,000 km from the moon. How long does it take light to travel this distance? Hint: The speed of light is 300,000 km/s.
 a. 1.28 min c. 0.128 s b. 12.80 s d. 1.28 s

120.

What are electromagnetic waves?
 a. sound waves c. changing gravitational fields b. electricity d. changing electric and magnetic fields

121.

The moon is 384,000 kilometers from Earth. How long does light take to travel that distance? Hint: The speed of light is 300,000 km/s.
 a. 1.28 seconds c. 0.78 seconds b. 12.8 seconds d. 7.8 seconds

122.

What separates white light into different colors?
 a. diffraction c. scattering b. refraction d. transmission

123.

What causes us to see the color of an opaque object?
 a. the colors of light that are reflected b. the colors of light that diffracted c. the colors of light that are transmitted d. the colors of light that are refracted

124.

What color of light do you see when looking through a colored transparent object?
 a. the color that was diffracted c. the color that was scattered b. the color that was absorbed d. the color that was transmitted

125.

What is mixing red, green, and blue light an example of?
 a. color matching c. color subtraction b. color addition d. color deficiency

Other

Use the figures below to answer the following questions.

126.

Look at the Figure C above. The block is moving. What force acts against the movement of the block?
 a.  static friction b.  kinetic friction c.  a magnetic force d.  gravitational force

INTERPRETING GRAPHICS
Use the image below to answer the following questions.

127.

_____ The vibrating stirrup causes the oval window to vibrate.

128.

_____ Movement of liquid inside cochlea causes hair cells to bend.

Use the image below to answer the following questions.

129.

Look at the diagram. What happens at point B?
 a.  deconstructive interference c.  sonic boom is produced b.  shock wave is produced d.  supersonic speeds

INTERPRETING GRAPHICS
Use the figure below to answer the following question.

130.

The figure is an example of
 a.  color matching. c.  color subtraction. b.  color addition. d.  color deficiency.

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